Did Paul prohibit all forms of same-sex sexual relations?
by Ian Paul, Psephizo:
David Instone-Brewer has written an article in this month’s Premier Christianity magazine, arguing that, because Paul cites Leviticus 20.18 in his neologism in 1 Cor 6.9, and Lev 20.18 uses an unusual word, Paul was only rejecting certain forms of same-sex sexual relationship. His argument is quite technical, but you can read it here.
I was invited to offer a response; you can read the edited, published version here, and below the full text of what I offered, together with an additional final reflection. There is a more technical engagement with David’s original claim which I posted here.
Did Paul condemn all same-sex sexual activity? Yes he did
In this issues ‘Decoding the Bible’ David Instone-Brewer argues that is it unclear that Paul condemns all forms of same-sex sexual activity. Having known and appreciated David and his work over many years, I was surprised by the inaccuracies, confusion, and false steps that he takes along the way.
The first is in his article title: ‘Did Paul condemn all homosexuality?’ This cannot be a question we can ask about Scripture, since the notion of ‘homosexuality’ as an identity is a modern invention, dependent on an individualised psychological understanding of sexual orientation which is alien to the ancient world. There was recognition in the ancient world that some people had a settled attraction to people of the same sex (see the speech of Aristophanes in Plato’s Symposium) but this was not considered to be an ‘orientation’ or identity as we think of it.
Related Posts
Tags
Share This
